In John 10:33, did the Jews say that Jesus claims to be God?

Purpose

Jews questioning Jesus
Jews questioning Jesus

In John 10:33, according to the NASB, the Jews said to Jesus:

You, being a man,
make Yourself out to be God.

The purpose of this article is to determine, based on the debate between Jesus and the Jews in John 10:23-38, what Jesus really claimed to be. In particular, did He claim to be God?

Overview of the text of John 10

While Jesus was walking in the temple

The Jews were saying to Him …
If You are the Christ, tell us plainly.”
Jesus answered them,
‘I told you, and you do not believe’
(John 10:24-25).

In other words, Jesus already told them that He is the Christ. Then Jesus continued and made some pretty astounding claims:

My sheep hear My voice … and they follow Me;
and I give eternal life to them,
and they will never perish;

and no one will snatch them out of My hand.
My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all;
and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand.
I and the Father are one.”
(John 10:27-30)

In response to these claims, “the Jews picked up stones … to stone Him” (John 10:31) and said to Him:

We … stone You … for blasphemy;
and because You, being a man,
make Yourself out to be God
(John 10:33).

Referring to Psalm 82, Jesus answered:

Has it not been written in your Law,
‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’?

If he called them gods,
to whom the word of God came …

do you say of Him,
whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world,

‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said,
‘I am the Son of God’?
(John 10:34-36)

In other words, Jesus argued that, if the people mentioned in Psalm 82, who were mere human beings, could be called “gods,” then how much more could He, “whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world,” be called “the Son of God?” (John 10:34-36)

Summary

What did the Jews say?

Firstly, did the Jews, in John 10:33, really say that Jesus claims to be God?

The word that is translated as “God” (theos) basically means a supernatural being. In that case, it is translated as “god.” When the same word is used for the God of the Bible, it is translated as “God.”

For the following reasons, the Jews did not say that Jesus claims to be is “God:”

(1) The Jews said that Jesus claims to be theos (John 10:33) after Jesus made some astounding claims. However, that was not a claim to be God because Jesus acknowledged that He is subordinate to the Father (John 10:25, 29).

(2) In defense, after the accusation of the Jews in verse 33, Jesus compared Himself to people, namely to people “to whom the word of God came” (John 10:35). This defense would not make any sense if the Jews said that Jesus claimed to be the Almighty God.

(3) Later, when the Jews brought their accusations against Jesus before Pilate, they did not say that He claimed to be God. They said that “He made Himself out to be the Son of God” (John 19:7).

For these reasons, the Jews understood Jesus not to be claiming to be God, but merely to be an immortal supernatural being; similar to one of the Greek gods or perhaps an angel. John 10:33, therefore, should be translated as: “You, being a man, make Yourself out to a god.” 

Did Jesus claim to be God?

The purpose of this article is not only to determine what the Jews said, but also to determine who Jesus claimed to be. He did not claim to be God. Rather, in response to the Jews’ accusation, Jesus explicitly corrected them by saying: “I said, ‘I am the Son of God’” (John 10:36). In that response, He also gave further indications that He is subordinate to the Father, for example, that the Father had sent the Son into the world (John 10:36-37).

Jesus’ three extraordinary claims in John 10:28-30 are often used as proof that He is God; equal with the Almighty. But they do not:

He is able to give eternal life to His followers because the Father gave Him that ability (John 5:25-26; John 17:2).

No one will snatch His people out of His hand because the Father protects His people through the Son (John 10:28-29).

I and the Father are one” does not mean that they are literally one, but that they are perfected in unity (John 17:11; 22-23).

Jesus claimed to be King of Israel.

Jesus, therefore, claimed to be the unique Son of God. Christians are often called sons of God but Jesus is “the one and only Son of God” (John 3:18; NIV). “The Son of God” is another title for “the Christ” (John 11:27; 20:31; Matt 26:63; Mark 1:1). But that is also a claim to be the king of Israel (John 1:49; 19:12; Matt 26:42-43). This explains the strong reaction of the Jews; Jesus claimed to be their king.

Conclusion

If Jesus claimed to be God, that fact would have been very important and would have been repeated many times over in the New Testament. But Jesus never claimed to be “God.” He claimed to be the unique Son of God; the Christ and the King of Israel.

– END OF SUMMARY –


Did the Jews really say
that Jesus claims to be God?

Did the Jews really say to Jesus:

You … make Yourself out to be God” (John 10:33; NASB)?

The meaning of theos

To answer that question, we need to understand the word theos, which can be translated as “God” or as “god.” 

In the Greek culture, the word theos was used to refer to beings such as Zeus or Achilles, namely immortal beings with super powers that live in the heavens. Theos is also used in this sense in the NT. For example:

When Paul healed a lame man, the crowds cried,
The gods (theoi) have become like men
and have come down to us
” (Acts 14:11).

And, referring to Herod, the people cried out:
The voice of a god and not of a man!” (Acts 12:22)

The Bible uses the same word theos for the God of the Bible. In the original Greek text, there is no distinction between lower- and upper-case letters as we have in the words “god” and “God.” However, when the translators understand that theos in a particular instance refers to the Almighty, they translate it with a capital G “God.” While “god” is a common noun, describing a class of beings, we effectively use “God” as a name (a proper noun) for one specific Being.

In John 10:33, the word is theon, which is the same as theos, but with a different ending. The word endings do not change the meaning but determine whether the word is the subject or object of the sentence.

As quoted above, in response to Jesus’ claims in John 10:28-30, the Jews said to Jesus:

You, being a man,
make Yourself out to be God.

(John 10:33)

Since the NASB capitalize the “G,” it means that the translators assumed that the Jews said that Jesus claimed to be the Almighty.

The Jews did not say that Jesus claims to be God.

For the following reasons, it is proposed that the Jews used the word theos in John 10:33 with the general Greek meaning of a supernatural being:

(1) Jesus described the Father as superior to Himself.

Firstly, the Jews accused Jesus of claiming to be theos after Jesus made some astounding claims, but these astounding claims did not include a claim to be God, for He indicated that He is subordinate to the Father. For example, as part of those claims, Jesus said:

That the works that He does, He does in His Father’s name (John 10:25). This means that His Father is superior to Him.

That His Father gave Him His “sheep” (John 10:29).

That His Father “is greater than all” (John 10:29). In these verses, Jesus explains the relationship between Himself and His Father. Therefore, what Jesus was really saying is that “the Father is greater than I” (John 14:28).

(2) Jesus claimed to be similar to a Greek God.

Secondly, the Jews said that Jesus is not theos (John 10:33) after Jesus described Himself as similar to a Greek god, namely that He is able to give people immortality (John 10:28) and that He has existed in heaven before His birth (e.g., John 6:38, 41, 62). 

(3) Jesus compared Himself to people.

Thirdly, in defense to the accusation of the Jews, Jesus compared Himself to people, namely to people “to whom the word of God came” (John 10:35). This refers to Psalm 82 which refers to certain people as “gods” because they have been supernaturally inspired by God. If the Jews accused Jesus of claiming to be the Almighty, why would Jesus correct them by comparing Himself to such people? Rather, His defense seems to indicate that the Jews accused Jesus of claiming to be a supernatural being; not that He claimed to be God.

(4) The Jews did not accuse Jesus before Pilate of claiming to be God.

Fourthly, when the Jews brought their accusations before Pilate, they did not say that He claimed to be God. They said:

We have a law, and by that law He ought to die
because He made Himself out to be the Son of God
” (John 19:7).

Conclusion

These quotes show that the Jews did not understand Jesus to make Himself out to be God. If the Jews accused Jesus of merely claiming to be a supernatural being, then John 10:33 should be translated as “You, being a man, make Yourself out to a god.” (Ancient Greek did not have indefinite articles.)

Did Jesus claim to be God?

However, the purpose of this article is not to determine what the Jews said, but to determine who Jesus claimed to be.

In response to the Jews’ accusation, Jesus explicitly stated that He does not claim to be “God.” He said:

I said, ‘I am the Son of God’” (John 10:36).

In that response, He gave further indications that He is subordinate to the Father. He said that the Father had sanctified and sent the Son into the world and that He is doing the works of His Father (John 10:36-37). It is a consistent teaching of the New Testament that the Son is subordinate to the Father

Three Extraordinary Claims

Jesus’ three extraordinary claims in John 10:28-30 are often used as proof that He is God; equal with the Almighty. These three statements really do present a very high view of Christ but, as shown below, none of them mean that the Son is the same as God or equal with the Father:

I give eternal life.

His ability to give eternal life to people (John 10:28) does not make Him equal to the Father because, as indicated by the following quote, He has “life in Himself” because He received it from the Father and, for that reason, “the dead,” who will hear “the voice of the Son of God, … will live:

An hour is coming …
when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God,
and those who hear will live
.
For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so
He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself.

(John 5:25-26)

Similarly, in prayer to the Father, Jesus said:

You gave Him (the Son) authority over all flesh,
that to all whom You have given Him,
He may give eternal life
(John 17:2).

No one will snatch them out of My hand.

No one will snatch His people out of His hand (John 10:28), not because Jesus has this ability independent from the Father, but because “no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand” and because His Father “is greater than all” (John 10:29). Therefore, He protects His “sheep” through the power of His Father. Or, to state this more consistent with how God creates and redeems (Col 1:16, 20), the Father protects His “sheep” through the Son.

Since His Father “is greater than all,” the Father is also greater than the Son.

I and the Father are one.

Many use this statement in John 10:30 as proof that the Father and the Son are one Being, but Jesus’ prayer explains the phrase “are one” clearly. He prayed for His followers:

That they may be one
even as We are
” (John 17:11).

That they may be one,
just as We are one;
I in them and You in Me,
that they may be perfected in unity” (John 17:22-23).

Therefore, just as Jesus’ followers are not one person, so the Father and the Son are not literally one Person. Rather, to “be one” means to “be perfected in unity” (John 17:23). For a further discussion, see – I and the Father are one.

This statement in John 10:30, that the Father and the Son “are one,” explains His claim in the previous verses that no one will snatch His people out of His hand because no one will snatch His people out of His Father’s hand. Christ does that in the power of His Father. Nevertheless, this presents a very high view of Christ, similar statements such as that the Father created and still maintains all things through Him (Heb 1:2-3).

Jesus claimed to be King of Israel.

Jesus is the one and only Son of God.

Jesus claimed to be “the Son of God” (John 10:36; cf. John 19:7). John concluded his gospel by summarizing the main purpose of his gospel. He wrote:

These have been written so that you may believe
that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God
” (John 20:31).

Christians are often called sons of God. For example:

You are all sons of God
through faith in Christ Jesus

(Gal 3:26; cf. Gal 4:6; Luke 20:34-36; Rom 8:14, 16, Matt 5:9).

Other examples of people who are “sons of God” are those that will be resurrected from the dead (Luke 20:34-36; Romans 8:19) and all believers (John 1:12; 1 John 3:1-2; Phil. 2:15).

We, therefore, might find the strong reaction of the Jews strange.  However, Jesus did not claim to be a son of God; He claimed to be THE Son of God; “the one and only Son of God” (John 3:18; NIV). This understanding is supported by Satan and his angels:

The devil tempted Jesus, saying to Him, “If You are THE Son of God …” (Matt 4:3, 6; Luke 4:3, 9).

Whenever the unclean spirits saw Him, they would fall down before Him and shout, “You are THE Son of God” (Mark 3:11; Luke 4:42)!

THE Son of God is the “Christ.

The question is then, what does it mean to be “the one and only Son of God?” Who did the Jews understand the Son of God to be? The following verses identify the Son of God as the “Christ:”

Lazarus’ sister said to Him:
“I have believed that You are
the Christ, the Son of God,
even He who comes into the world

(John 11:27).

John concluded his gospel with the words:
These have been written so that you may believe
that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God

(John 20:31).

The high priest said to Him:
I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether
You are the Christ, the Son of God

(Matt 26:63; cf. Mark 1:1).

So, we have come full circle. Jesus’s debate with the Jews began with a claim by Jesus to be the Christ (John 10:24-25) and it ended at the same point (John 10:36). But now comes the clincher:

The Son of God is the king of Israel.

For example:

The “magi from the east” asked:
Where is He who has been born King of the Jews?
Herod then asked the chief priests and scribes,
where the Messiah was to be born” (Matt 2:1-5).
(“Messiah” is the Hebrew equivalent for the Greek title “Christ” (cf. John 1:41).)

The following quotes show that the title, “the Son of God” is synonymous to “the King of Israel:

Nathaniel answered Him:
Rabbi, You are the Son of God;
You are the King of Israel
” (John 1:49).

After the Jews accused Jesus before Pilate that Jesus
made Himself out to be the Son of God” (John 19:7),
they added that
Jesus “makes himself out to be a king” (John 19:12).

While He hung on the cross, the chief priests said:
He is the King of Israel
let Him now come down from the cross …
for He said, ‘I am the Son of God’
” (Matt 26:42-43).

These examples confirm that “the Son of God” was understood to be the King of Israel. This explains the strong reaction of the Jews; Jesus claimed to be their king. But He acted contrary to their expectations. Like the two disciples, walking to Emmaus said, they “were hoping that it was He who was going to redeem Israel” (Luke 24:21). They expected the Messiah to free Israel from Roman oppression. But He labored to free Israel from sin. The Jews, therefore, concluded that He is not the Messiah, but an impostor, and told Pilate:

He ought to die because He made
Himself out to be the Son of God
” (John 19:7).

Conclusion

If Jesus claimed to be God, this fact would have been very important and would have been repeated many times over in the New Testament. But Jesus never claimed to be “God.” He claimed to be the unique Son of God; the Messiah and the King of Israel.

Jesus is not equal to the Father, but we must emphasize the extremely very high view of Christ as described in these verses. He grants eternal life to sinners. But God, also called the Father, is the sole Source of all things. He alone is Almighty.

Other Available Articles

Who confirms the covenant in Daniel 9:27: Christ or the Antichrist?

EXCERPT: The prophecy’s poetic pattern and messianic nature indicate that it is Christ who confirms the covenant, namely, God’s covenant with Israel. It cannot be the prince, for that prince is a supernatural being.


Daniel 9:26 refers to two people: the Messiah who is “cut off” and “the prince that shall come”. Daniel 9:27 continues with a “he”:

“… he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week;
and in the midst of the week
he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease”

This article identifies the “he” in verse 27. Dispensationalism argues that “he” refers to the prince whose people destroyed the city in AD 70, and that this prince will reign during the last seven years before the return of Christ.

POETIC PATTERN

Summary: The Poetic Pattern of the prophecy indicates that “he” in verse 27, who confirms the covenant for seven years, is the same as the Messiah who is cut off in verse 26.

Parallelism in Daniel 9

parallelismThe prophecy in Daniel 9 uses much parallelism, where two related words or phrases are used together to emphasize a point, for instance:

Insight with understanding (Dan 9:22);
Give heed to the message and gain an understanding of the vision (Dan 9:23);
Your people and your holy city (Dan 9:24);
To finish the transgression, to make an end of sin (Dan 9:24);
Know and discern (Dan 9:25);
Restore and rebuild (Dan 9:25);
Seven weeks and sixty-two weeks (Dan 9:26);
The city and the sanctuary (Dan 9:26); and
Sacrifice and grain offering.

We also find this repetition of thought in two adjacent verses:

“I have now come forth to give you insight with understanding” (Dan 9:22) and
“I have come to tell you” (Dan 9:23)

The Prophecy has two Foci.

Jesus in JerusalemBut the most important pattern in the prophecy is the way in which the focus shifts repeatedly back and forth between the two foci; Jerusalem and the Messiah:

25: from the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem;
until Messiah the Prince there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks;
it will be built again, with plaza and moat, even in times of distress.
26: after the sixty-two weeks the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, and the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary.
27: he shall confirm the covenant …; and … cause the sacrifice … to cease … he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation …

Verses 25 and 26 explicitly shift the focus four times between Jerusalem and the Messiah. The implication is that verse 27 continues this pattern. Since verse 26 ends with a reference to Jerusalem, the first part of verse 27, describing the “he” who confirms the covenant for seven years, but “cause the sacrifice … to cease” in the middle of that week, should be the Messiah.

Similarly, the destruction in the last part of verse 27 should refer to Jerusalem. Also see Daniel 9: Chronological sequence for a further discussion.

THE MAIN PERSON

Summary: The dominant figure in verse 26 and in the entire prophecy is the “Messiah”. He is therefore the appropriate antecedent for “he” in verse 27.


The prince whose people destroy the city is the last person mentioned in verse 26. Dispensationalism, therefore, proposes that the “he” in verse 27 refers to this prince.

However, the “prince that shall come” is not the subject of that clause in verse 26. It reads “people of the prince”, not “the prince of the people”. The “prince” in verse 26 is a subordinate figure. The dominant figure in the entire prophecy and in verse 26 is the “Messiah.” The Messiah should therefore be preferred as the antecedent for the “he” in verse 27.

THE PRINCE IS SUPERNATURAL.

Summary: The prince in 9:26 is a supernatural being, representing the Roman nation, while the “he” of verse 27 is a human being, and therefore cannot refer to a supernatural being. Therefore, the proper antecedent for “he” is the Messiah.


The prince in verse 26 is described as “the prince who is to come”. A few verses later we read of a prince of Greece who also is “to come”:

Michael the archangel“I shall now return to fight against the prince of Persia; … the prince of Greece is about to come. … Yet there is no one who stands firmly with me against these forces except Michael your prince.” (Dan 10:20, 21; see also Dan 12:1)

Since this is a supernatural being that is speaking here (Dan 10:16, 18), the princes against whom he fights, and the prince Michael who stands with him, are also supernatural beings. The NASB, quoted above, calls them “forces”. They are not human beings. Each of the princes (of Persia, of Greece, and “Michael your prince”) represents a nation. Michael is the prince of the nation of Israel (Dan 12:1).

Since both the “prince of Greece” and the prince of Rome are “to come” (Dan 10:20; 9:26), it is implied that the prince of Rome in 9:26 is also a supernatural being. The “he” in verse 27, who is a human being, therefore cannot refer back to the prince in verse 26.

THIS IS A MESSIANIC PROPHECY.

Summary: According to Daniel 9 this world’s sin problem would be solved by the killing of the messiah, while an end will be made to the sacrificial system. In the light of the New Testament, these refer to Jesus, and the “he”, who ends the sacrificial system, is the Messiah.


Daniel 9:27 indicates:

… in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering

antichrist last seven years

In Dispensationalism this is the work of the Antichrist during the seven years prior to the return of Christ. He will destroy the sanctuary and its services.

In Dispensationalism the first 7+62 weeks (483 years) came to an end the Sunday prior to the Cross, while the 70th week is still in our future. The Cross, therefore, does not fall within the 490 years and none of the goals set for the 490 years, as listed in verse 24, have been fulfilled through the Cross, but will only be fulfilled at the end of the future 70th week.

The Six Goals

However, this “put a stop to sacrifice” must be understood within its context:

make atonement for iniquityVerse 24 lists six goals to be attained through Daniel’s people during the 490 years, including “to make atonement for iniquity” and “to bring in everlasting righteousness”.

The goals must be fulfilled through seven events listed in Dan 9:25-26, including the appearance (v25) and the killing of the Messiah (v26).

Verse 27, saying that a stop will be put to sacrifices in the middle of the final seven years, is the core and purpose of the 490 years.

The prophecy of Daniel 9, therefore, implies that this world’s sin problem would be solved (Dan 9:24) through the appearance (Dan 9:25) and killing of the Messiah (Dan 9:26), while “sacrifice and grain offering” will be stopped (Dan 9:27).

Fulfilled in Jesus

In the light of the New Testament, this describes Jesus Christ:

He was “Jesus the Messiah” (Matt 1:1, cf. 1:16, 17; 2:4; John 1:41, 4:25).

He was killed.

He solved the sin problem of the world. Through His death, He fulfilled the goals in verse 24 “to make atonement for iniquity” (John 1:29; Matt.26:28; Heb 7:27, 9:26-28; Heb 9:12; 10:10, 12, 14) and “to bring in everlasting righteousness” (Heb 9:12; Rom 5:10, 11; Col 1:20; 2 Cor 5:19; Col 1:22; Rom 5:18; John 3:17; Col 1:19-20).

His death caused sacrifice to cease. Christ’s death did not cause the Jewish sacrifices to cease immediately. The Jewish sacrifices continued until the destruction of Jerusalem forty years later. But these sacrifices pointed forward to the ultimate sacrifice of the Lamb of God. When Jesus—the Lamb of God—died, He fulfilled the significance of those sacrifices. The Jewish sacrifices were consequently terminated at the death of Christ in the sense of its loss of meaning.

The letter to the Hebrews states this explicitly. When Jesus ascended to heaven and became High Priest (Heb 6:20), the law changed (Heb 7:12), including the sacrificial system (Heb 7:19; 8:4; 9:22). Jesus set “aside the first [sacrifices and offerings] to establish the second” (Heb 10:9). (See also Heb 8:13 and Eph 2:15.) In this way, His death caused “sacrifice and the oblation (NASB: grain offering) to cease” (Dan 9:27).

Conclusion

The Daniel 9 prophecy is therefore thoroughly messianic. In this context, the statement that “he will put a stop to sacrifice” in verse 27 must be understood as referring to the sacrifice at the Cross which made an end to all other sacrifices. The “he” therefore refers to the Messiah. To allocate verse 27 to an end-time antichrist does injustice to the overall gist of the prophecy.

pierced through for our transgressionsThe prophecy – received 500 years before the cross – discloses a most profound aspect of the Messiah’s mission, namely that His death would be the true sacrifice for sin. As also disclosed by Isaiah 53, He was “pierced through for our transgressions”. This is not only another proof of the existence of the supernatural but also it tells us much about the nature of the universe. God knows where we are. He sent His only begotten Son to die for our sins. We cannot understand why and how, for His thoughts are as high above our thoughts as the stars are above the earth, but it is wonderful to understand that the Source of all power and love feels this way about us; undeserving sinners.

REPETITION

But then questions may arise:

If the termination of the sacrifices and the killing of the messiah is the same event, why is the one described as “after the 62 sevens”, (Dan 9:26) and the other as in the “midst of” the last seven (Dan 9:27)?

And why is the destruction of Jerusalem mentioned between the killing of the Messiah and the stop that is made to sacrifices?

The answer to this question is found in the repetition (parallelism) of the prophecy, as described above in the section dealing with the poetic structure. Since the prophecy so often repeats concepts, the repetition of the events of verse 26 by verse 27 is almost to be expected. The prophecy consists of three divisions; each providing information relative to a different period of time:

490 yearsVerse 24 announces the 490 years and sets the goals for that period.
483 years – Verses 25 and 26 describe events relative to the first 483 years, including the killing of the Messiah and the consequential destruction of the city after the end of the 483 years.
Final 7 years – Verse 27 describes the same events, but relative to the final seven years.


SUMMARY

The previous verse identifies two options; the Messiah that is “cut off” and “the prince that shall come”. The previous article found that it is God’s covenant. It must therefore be the Messiah. In this article:

Poetic Pattern – The prophecy has a poetic pattern that shifts repeatedly back and forth between Jerusalem and the Messiah. In this pattern the “he” is the Messiah.

Dominant Figure – The dominant figure in verse 26 and in the entire prophecy is the “Messiah”. He is, therefore, the appropriate antecedent for “he” in verse 27.

Supernatural Being – Comparison with the princes in Daniel 10 shows that the prince in 9:26 is a supernatural being, representing the Roman nation, while the “he” of verse 27 is a human being, and therefore cannot refer to a supernatural being.

Messianic Prophecy – The purpose of the events predicted by the prophecy is to solve this world’s sin problem (v24) through the killing of the messiah (v26), while an end will be made to the sacrificial system (v27). This is a prediction of Christ’s mission. Since the Lamb of God caused sacrifices to cease, the “he”, who makes an end to the sacrificial system, is the Messiah.


OTHER ARTICLES

Dispensational View of Daniel 9

      1. Overview of the Dispensational view
      2. When did the 490 years begin?
      3. Whose covenant confirmed; God’s or Satan’s?
      4. Who confirms that covenant; Christ or Antichrist?
      5. When are the last seven years?
      6. Inconsistencies in the Dispensational View
      7. When will Christ fulfill the goals in Daniel 9:24?
      8. Pre-Wrath Dispensationalism – the church will suffer.

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